CCNA 3 Final Exam Answer v5.03

  1. A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

    • A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
    • The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
    • This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
    • This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
  2. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

    • ability to build a routing table
    • ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
    • ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
    • ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)
  3. What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)

    • broadcast traffic containment
    • failover capability
    • forwarding rate
    • port density
    • Power over Ethernet
    • speed of convergence
  4. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

    • connect remote networks
    • provide Power over Ethernet to devices
    • connect users to the network
    • provide data traffic security
    • provide a high-speed network backbone
  5. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

    • 4096
    • 32768
    • 61440
    • 65535
  6. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 014

    • S1
    • S2
    • S3
    • S4
  7. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 013

    • alternate, root, designated, root
    • designated, root, alternate, root
    • alternate, designated, root, root
    • designated, alternate, root, root
  8. A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

    • Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
    • Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
    • Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
    • Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
  9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches. What will be a result of entering these commands?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 015

    • S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0.
    • S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576.
    • S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192.
    • S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596.
  10. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 012

    • MAC address of the forwarding router
    • MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
    • MAC address of the standby router
    • MAC address of the virtual router
  11. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

    • GLBP allows load balancing between routers.
    • It is nonproprietary.
    • It uses a virtual router master.
    • It works together with VRRP.
  12. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?

    • HSRP uses active and standby routers.
    • It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
    • It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
    • HSRP is nonproprietary.
  13. Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

    • spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links
    • dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots
    • enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link
    • creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches
  14. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

    • SW1: on 
      SW2: on
    • SW1: desirable
      SW2: desirable
    • SW1: auto
      SW2: auto
      trunking enabled on both switches
    • SW1: auto
      SW2: auto
      PortFast enabled on both switches
    • SW1: passive
      SW2: active
  15. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

    • on
    • desirable
    • active
    • auto
    • passive
  16. What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

    • The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.
    • All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.
    • All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.
    • All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
    • Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.
  17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 009
    • The EtherChannel is down.
    • The port channel ID is 2.
    • The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.
    • The bundle is fully operational.
    • The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.
  18. What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)

    • Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.
    • At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.
    • The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.
    • The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.
    • The APs must use different cluster names.
  19. A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

    • Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
    • Add another access point.
    • Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
    • Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.
  20. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

    • ad hoc mode
    • hotspot
    • infrastructure mode
    • mixed mode
  21. What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

    • sending an ARP request
    • delivering a broadcast frame
    • transmitting a probe request
    • initiating a three-way handshake
    • receiving a broadcast beacon frame
  22. At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?

    • network
    • open
    • passive
    • shared-key
  23. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

    • WPA
    • WEP
    • WPA2 with TKIP
    • WPA2 with AES
  24. Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?

    • Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.
    • Change the authentication method on the AP.
    • Switch to an 802.11g AP.
    • Set the AP to mixed mode.
  25. A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)

    • ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE
    • area 1 authentication message-digest
    • username OSPF password 1C34dE
    • enable password 1C34dE
    • area 0 authentication message-digest
  26. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 011
    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 011
    • R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
    • R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
    • The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
    • R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the network.
    • R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.
  27. What are two methods to make the OSPF routing protocol more secure? (Choose two.)

    • Use only OSPFv3.
    • Use MD5 authentication.
    • Use the enable secret command.
    • When feasible, create a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency.
    • Use the passive-interface command on LAN interfaces that are connected only to end-user devices.
  28. A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the following:

    1.that all interfaces have correct addressing

    2.that the routing process has been globally configured

    3.that correct router adjacencies have formed

    What additional action taken on R3 could solve the problem?

    • Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN.
    • Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing process.
    • Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.
    • Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.
  29. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 008
    • There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID
    • The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
    • The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
    • The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.
  30. When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

    • when the router has interfaces in different areas
    • when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
    • when the router has the highest router ID
    • when the router has an OSPF priority of 0
  31. Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across the entire OSPF domain?

    • type 1
    • type 2
    • type 3
    • type 4
    • type 5
  32. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network in the R2 routing table?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 004
    • This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
    • This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.
    • This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
    • This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
  33. What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)

    • ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
    • Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.
    • ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.
    • Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.
    • Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.
  34. Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 005
    • There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network
    • The OSPF routing process is inactive.
    • The link to the new area is down.
    • The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
  35. When are EIGRP update packets sent?

    • only when necessary
    • when learned routes age out
    • every 5 seconds via multicast
    • every 30 seconds via broadcast
  36. Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)

    • The packets are sent in response to hello packets.
    • The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.
    • The packets are sent as unicast.
    • The packets require confirmation.
    • The packets are unreliable.
  37. Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 010
    • B(config-router)# network
      B(config-router)# network
    • B(config-router)# network 
      B(config-router)# network 
    • B(config-router)# network
      B(config-router)# network
    • B(config-router)# network
      B(config-router)# network
      B(config-router)# network
      B(config-router)# network
      B(config-router)# network
      B(config-router)# network
    • B(config-router)# network
  38. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100 used for?

    • as the autonomous system number
    • as the number of neighbors supported by this router
    • as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor
    • as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router
  39. A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?

    • show ip protocols
    • show running-config
    • show interfaces
    • show ip route
  40. Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)

    • delay
    • MTU
    • reliability
    • transmit and receive load
    • bandwidth
  41. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 001

    • There is one feasible successor to network
    • The network can be reached through
    • The reported distance to network is 41024256.
    • The neighbor meets the feasibility condition to reach the network.
    • Router R1 has two successors to the network.
  42. When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?

    • when the EIGRP domain is converged
    • when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
    • when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
    • when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available
  43. Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

    • the 32-bit router ID
    • the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
    • the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
    • the interface IPv6 link-local address
  44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 007
    • The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.
    • R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.
    • The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.
    • If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.
  45. Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 003
  46. By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?

    • 2
    • 4
    • 16
    • 32
  47. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?

    • on a per-packet basis
    • on a per-interface basis
    • on a per-path-load basis
    • on a per-destination basis
  48. Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between EIGRP neighbors?CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 016

    • The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.
    • A username and password must be configured.
    • The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the interfaces.
    • The CiscoVille router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two interfaces for EIGRP authentication.
  49. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

    • when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
    • when a router has more than three active interfaces
    • when a network contains discontiguous network addresses
    • when a router has less than five active interfaces
    • when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
  50. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.

    What action should be taken to solve this problem?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 006
    • Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
    • Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
    • Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
    • Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.
  51. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

    • Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
    • Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
    • Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
    • Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
    • Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.
  52. Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?

    • The FTP server is operational.
    • The old IOS image file has been deleted.
    • There is sufficient space in flash memory.
    • The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.
  53. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the router?

    CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 017
    • show license all
    • ping
    • copy tftp: flash0:
    • ping
  54. What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

    • It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.
    • It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
    • It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
    • It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.
  55. Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?

    • IPBase
    • DATA
    • Unified Communications
    • Security
  56. A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?

    • The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
    • The features in the Security package are available immediately.
    • The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
    • The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.
  57. What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)

    • License Type: ipbasek9
    • License Type: Permanent
    • License Type: Temporary
    • License State: Active, In Use
    • License State: Active, Registered
    • License State: On
  58. Fill in the blank.

    The backbone   area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

  59. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)

    • Question
      CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 Question 001
    • Answer
      CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 Answer 001
  60. Match the CLI command prompt with the command or response entered when backing up a Release 15 IOS image to an IPv6 TFTP server. (Not all options are used.)

    • Question
      CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 Question 002
    • Answer
      CCNA3 Final Exam v5.03 Answer 002

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